The Spanish Armada was defeated by the British. Why did Philip II of Spain send his fleet to English waters to begin with?
to gain control of trading rights in the English Channel
to expand the Spanish empire in Europe
to conquer England and bring Catholicism back to England
to gain control of British colonies in the Americas,


C is your best bet because A gose with C in the fact they would get control of the channels if they expanded the Spanish empire.

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